We know that DHT is three times more powerful an androgen than T at the AR and is the primary culprit in hair loss. But does T itself cause hair loss but simply at a lesser rate than DHT? Especially if there are very high (supraphysiological) amounts of T present?
I don’t think anyone has studied effects on the scalp of high levels of T with total 5-AR blockade (thus avoiding presence of DHT).
However, all synthetics including those (most of them)
that don’t convert to DHT, at high enough dose will
On the other hand, low levels of androgen can be below
threshold, so there is no hair loss whatsoever… this
is seen in eunuchs (castrated men) for example.
For many individuals, blocking DHT conversion fairly
effectively lowers androgen activity in the scalp
enough that their development of MPB seems to stop
or even reverse slightly. Perhaps their threshold
for that effect is high enough that their natural
testosterone levels alone, when not potentiated by
conversion to DHT, are below the threshold for MPB.
Mr. Roberts, with T being a relatively simple compound compared to the synthetics, would’nt using finasteride (at a moderate dosage as you have already addressed) to reduce DHT related side effects, Arimidex (at a modest dosage, since it can be too potent) to inhibit aromatase activity and thus estrogenic sides, would’nt you virtually elimate negative effects as well as achieve higher levels of T since it is not being converted to either DHT or E? Except HPTA supression issues of course which could be remedied with adjunctive meds. And of course these strategies would not work with synthetics, but I am refering to T only.