Well, OK, this question is primarily for Mr. Roberts and I know that we all have an understanding not to overuse that, but I am asking because it is in regards to something he had written about Androsol in isuue 97 (BTS column). Bill had mentioned that it was difficult at the time to ascertain whether the salivary analysis of test subjects was measuring T or both T and 4-AD levels. I was wondering if there was any new information on this? I realize that the question may be moot since the bottom line is that Androsol works well, and 4-AD seems to be anabolic even in its unconverted state, but just curious about any further test results since then.
There is no way to tell and since nobody is
going to either spend tens of thousands of
dollars to develop a murine antibody nor
is anyone going to do mass spec on it,
there never really will be a way to tell.
It's a moot point as you mentioned. Because 4-AD is about 80%-120% the AAS that straight testosterone is.
The effect is more than likely NOT due to
conversion to testosterone but from
intrinsic properties of 4-AD.
If this were not true, one of two things would surely happen:
- It would not work
2) Everyone would have 46DD titties from the testosterone -> estrogen issue.