[quote]Brother Chris wrote:
[quote]smh23 wrote:
[quote]Brother Chris wrote:
[quote]smh23 wrote:
[quote]Brother Chris wrote:
[quote]smh23 wrote:
I’d say each is very much a product of the lives and times of its writers and editors. The oldest material in the OT probably dates from the 14th or 13th Century BCE, with most of the stories finding their way into the narrative around the 5th C BCE. Many sections could be even older–some are little more than recycled and refurbished versions of ancient Pagan myths (of which the flood myth is a prominent example).
The New Testament was written by different men in a different era. By 100 CE theories of jurisprudence, justice, and legality had been systematically developed by the Romans and spread throughout much of the Mediterranean world. The Romans had also indirectly kept at least certain aspects of Classical Greek Philosophy alive and well. You can argue about the extent to which Roman and Greek civilization influenced the Apostles, but the world was certainly a different place-- and the God men wrote about naturally became a different God.[/quote]
Except G-d is different. You assume He is, which He is not.[/quote]
What?[/quote]
G-d isn’t different. Sorry, don’t know what happened there.[/quote]
Your faith dictates that you must accept the OT and NT Gods as one and the same, so I won’t argue that. But do you think that, even if they are the same God, different men affected by different cultural/historical influences would naturally see their world and therefore their God through different lenses?
Ten witnesses of one event usually produce at least two conflicting accounts.[/quote]
I’ll make clear explanation of why G-d is not different from OT and NT and now, as someone put it earlier. The explanation of G-d is this: G-d be’s eternally arrived (be’s as in past present and will be). That is the simplest and most efficient statement to describe G-d I can think of theologically speaking, besides “I AM.”
Anyway, yes I do think that that different men with different cultures and historical influences will see G-d differently. That is why someone in Mexico sees G-d different than someone in NY city. That is why those in Israel see G-d different than someone in China. However, the view point is not because G-d is different, but different circumstances. Now, the reasons why may be right or wrong or one might be better or worse.
However, in the instance of NT and OT, the possible reason why G-d during OT seems different than NT is because G-d has become positive to us, he has become Jesus. A man, someone that we can touch, someone that we can kill, &c.
So, it could be said that G-d in the OT seemed at a distance from us, although He walked with his people. In the NT times Jesus walks with us, and we know it and it has become almost mundane to society it seems. Which is quite astonishing, I would think people would be more enamored with a G-d that would humble himself to basically the substance of dust for his creation (everyone love a romance story about the prince who saves a princess from dwelling in her step-mothers house for all eternity) than one that cared less about his creation and only “meddled” when he was angry (like the Greeks-Romans).
Is G-d different? No. Since Jesus have people changed their disposition to G-d, ultimately changing their views of G-d? Yes.
Does this translate to difference in how the writers in the Holy Scriptures wrote about G-d? Yes, in some ways, theologically speaking it hasn’t but what we call prejudices G-d allowed the authors to put into the Bible.[/quote]
I don’t know if I missed it or not , but why don’t you spell God ?