Mangusrah, yes, my first sentence there was an atrocity, but it does seem to me that it can be puzzled out.
My key point on this is that the argument for these proposed “gay marriage” laws either invariably or almost invariably couch the matter in terms of supposedly opening to gays the possibility of having a relationship with each other that they want but now can’t have.
Which is utterly not true. Two gays – or three or four, I don’t care – can already have whatever relationship they want with each other.
The argument is never, or virtually never, from the perspective of the entire effect being to force OTHER people to act differently or pay differently than there is already existing mutual agreement to do.
Could you find me a webpage, for example, where gay advocates of such legislation acknowledge that the purpose is to accomplish the second, rather than the first?
Our British friend (if I recall correctly) asked why anyone would be opposed to legislation “letting gays be married.” (paraphrase.)
That is the reason, or the reason in my case. Because this legislation is not to “let” them have any relationship with each other that they can’t already have, but to use government power to force others to do contrary to what they wish to do or have already entered into mutually-agreed contracts to do.
I oppose that sort of thing.
Now, if the “gay marriage” advocates want to modify the proposed legislation where contracts agreed to prior to the date of enactment that have clauses referring to married individuals shall not be construed to have any reference to cases where persons are of the same sex – thus throwing the extraction of these benefits from employers or others contrary to existing contract out the window – then that would largely remove that objection.
I strongly suspect that that won’t be done because the goal does include extracting these benefits from unwilling payers.