As we know, while on TRT (which i am self prescribed) or a AAS cycle typically FSH and LH will be <0.1 for both.
for the past 6 weeks now i have started HMG @75Iu 3 times per week with HCG also shot @500IU on these days.
I got some blood work last week which showed my LH as <0.1 however FSH was 3.2 (in the lower end of “normal” range. During reasearch i found another forum member to have the SAME outcome as me in that FSH was elevated by LH was <0.1. see here: New HCG/HMG Fertility Protocol Underway
snipped from post below:
“I just took an LH and FSH back after the first week to make sure the HMG is real (contains FSH) and FSH did come back at 2.9 (1.2-9.6) and LH came back .1. This is normal since HCG is an LH analogue and won’t register on an LH test. I’m going to up my HMG to 125 EOD to get FSH up and then take a semen analysis this Friday.”
I thought HMG was actual FSH and LH and thus should show in a blood test?
based on the results and the fact i have been blasting and cruising for near 2 years now - the elevation of FSH is likely due to the HMG (which is good news)
however how come the LH is not elevated? does HMG work in the same what that HCG does for both LH and FSH (or just LH) by mimicing the body to see the drug as these hormones and thus to use them in the same way (or just mimic LH in this case)?