Given the fact that women are routinely prescribed the contraceptive pill, and that this acts in the same way as anabolic steroids do on the male HTPA, why is there such a perceived marked difference in the ability of both sexes HTPA to regain function?
Female contraceptive use is often for extended periods of time, quite often years. Yet with all that time with a suppressed HTPA, over 90 % are able to conceive normally within one year after coming off.
My thoughts on this;
Female contraceptive use is most often oral, with a short half life, so the drugs can easily clear the system. The dosage is low. I think that the chances of there being a significant biological difference between the female and male hypothalamus and pituitary is very low also.
The other major difference is testicular atrophy in male users. Perhaps long term lack of use causes problems in restarting natural testosterone production that are related to the condition of the testes. I guess in women, the sex organs are maintained by the synthetic hormones, unlike in men.
Any thoughts on this?