Feel free to correct me if any of this is wrong, but it’s my understanding that there is only one type of androgen receptor (AR)in humans. It is also my understanding that DHT has a greater AR binding affinity than testosterone in all tissue except for skeletal muscle. My question is “why?”
The explanation that I’ve read is the vague “because of non-genomic factors.” Well, what specifically would constitute some of these non-genomic factors? Although I accept that our knowledge in this area is incomplete-but-growing, simply restating that phrase over and over is almost a useless explanation. Shoot, the explanation may as well be “because of magic.”