Hey all i’m new to TNATION and seeking some insight. (sorry for long post)
I would VERY VERY much appreciate an answer to this!!!
So I was really hoping someone could explain this immense confusion I have regarding the effects on natural testosterone production in the context of SARMS and AAS. So, its well-known that SARMS are sort of the “safe” steroids (less side effects, but much less gains) compared to AAS, and most people will take SARMS stacked together with other SARMS or by themselves (The key point here is that there is no test base) AND note it’s proven that SARMs lower natural test production while using them…
So, for instance let’s say Bob takes LGD for 12 weeks at 10mg: If his natural testosterone was say 600 ng/dL before, then after the cycle, total test was 150 ng / dl. This example is fairly accurate, but let’s just say you would experience a drop of 50-70%. In the world of SARMS this is normal - then your test would return to normal in the following weeks.
Now let’s say Jim ran Anavar only at 30mg a day (we are not here to talk about the level of dosing, maybe 40mg though) for 4 weeks. I’m not sure if this is entirely accurate but I heard anavar suppresses test at 5-6% per week ( albeit not sure at what dose ). But If Jims’ test was 600 ng/ dl before the cycle, then 450 ng/ dl total test after sounds reasonable as an average right? (this is me being worst case scenario I think? please correct if wrong).
Now if this is true, can someone explain the discrepancy between the two communities? Now I completely understand that without testosterone present, the body will be unable to maintain normal physiological functions that are controlled and governed by test. So I can 100% see why people say every cycle should have testosterone as a base or it should NOT be run, and you know nothing about nothing etc. etc. but then why do SARM users not suffer from this!?!? Shouldn’t they be fukked in the ass feeling lethargic etc? Also from a health POV completely shutting down your test by using exogenous test, isn’t that far worse than just suppressing it for a few weeks, I’m not afraid of needles, but this just seems a little healthier?
So basically what’s with the discrepancy. Are SARM users immune to low test problems, or is it that any roid will actually shut you down 100% instead of suppressing you no matter what, and you may as well use test because natty test is fukked anyway, do they affect test differently? like lh fsh Etc? will anavar shut you down?
This whole question stems from me wondering, why is it not better to run anavar only (like 30-40mg for 4-6 weeks), compared to SARMS.
And essentially iv’e got some friends who have run / are running sarms only now, but what would
30-40 mg of anavar over 4-6 weeks be like instead? (with liver support)
feel free to call me out if this is fukking stupid, but please explain why. I have done alot of research but can’t answer my own question.