I am a 21 year old male, I lift heavy and eat clean.
I suspect something is up with my test/e2 levels, I have always had a very thin bone structure, a very quite voice, have a difficult time getting erections even in the presence of a hot female, have wide hips/pelvis and womanly thighs (despite being at around 10% BF) and had pubertal gynecomastia since I was 13 (which I had to have removed at 18).
I had bloodwork done when I was 18 in which the endocrinologist said there was nothing wrong with me before I went ahead with the gyne surgery. And I recently had bloodwork done a few weeks ago to see if I am eligible for TRT. To which the same endocrinologist said nothing was wrong at all.
(Bloodwork done at around 8am for both tests)
125 pmol/L (18) --- 140 pmol/L (21) range: <150
426 pmol/L (18) --- 425 pmol/L (21) range: 90-700
17.3 nmol/L (18) --- 14.6 nmol/L (21) range: 10-30
Sex Hormone Binding Globulin:
23 nmol/L (18) --- 23 nmol/L (21) range: 10-70
I am in vastly better shape now than I was at 18, I find it very strange that my test is decreasing already, and estradiol is going up (it was high to begin with). The endo said my results were within the range and that these fluctuations can happen during various times of the day, despite the fact that I explained to him they were both taken early in the morning.
I feel like I have no choice but to take matters into my own hands, based off the little research I have done online it seems that 100mg test E every 2 weeks is a safe way to go.
Any input would be highly appreciated, I have never used anabolics before. I am aware that TRT is for life if I start now.
So to summarize my main questions are:
Does 100mg test E per 2 weeks seem reasonable in order to get me into the 600 pmol/L range given my bloodwork?
From what I understand a PCT is not necessary when on such a small test cycle of 100mg/14 days, so will I not need to bother with HGC and/or an aromatase inhibitor?
Given that my estradiol is pretty damn high (140 currently) when the range on my lab sheet is <150, again would an aromatase inhibitor be of any value?