I'm talking about an androgen that doesn't automatize to DHT or estrogen. There are two distinct androgen receptors, not one, so that complicates things. It's also irrelevant to this issue. Let's pretend there's only one type of androgen receptor. For example, you can think of it as insulin. There's really only one type of insulin, and one type of insulin receptor.
I guess the idea you're talking about (which I think I've heard somewhere before) is that muscle cells will react differently tothe amount of androgens than hair follicle cells will. I don't know of any reason why one type of tissue will react differently to length of time exposed to androgens, or total amount, etc.
I don't know if I'm making sense. Basically, the entire idea is that a hair follicle cell will react differently to the length of time exposed to an androgen than a muscle cell will. I don't see why a pulse of androgens will make muscle cells grow, but not make hair fall out. There's no scientific reason to support this idea. If a higher dose for a shorter period of time has less of an effect on hair cells, it will also have less of an effect on muscle cells.
I have heard that women are supposed to pulse steroids in 2-3 week intervals to avoid virilization. Sorry, Bill Roberts, I'm not sure if I actually read that in one of your articles. It might have been that shithead Anthony Roberts. Either way, no universities are doing research into BodyBuilder Steroid enhancers, so this all just my opinion.